Quote from: HiMucker on June 16, 2023, 04:44:40 PMSo hypothetically if the entire unionist vote boycotted the poll and didn't turn up, would it be considered that there is no loser's consent because there wasn't a winner and a loser, just a winner? Are there any ramifications for the result in this case?
Losers consent is a totally normal concept. Its actually the basis of democracy including 50%+1. Ie, anyone voting in an election is giving losers consent if who/what they vote for doesn't win. I think people are confused when this term has been thrown out there. It's just jargon that's used in political science.
Ps. Examples of elections that do not have losers consent are ones that one side boycotts the election, or says the election is rigged.