Gaelic Football - Rules & Regulations discussion/clarification

[David McKeown]

And how is the fouled player to know he has an advantage? eyes in the back of his head?
It's a totally idiotic advantage rule when you can lose the advantage inside 4 seconds.

If a player does happen to notice that he has the advantage, can he stop play and say, 'thanks ref but I want the free kick not the so called advantage'?

No, he has to 'honestly' play on and make the ref call it that no advantage is being gained.

I think a ref would give the free in the case of getting bottled up, as it would be clear no advantage is being gained at the start of the bottling up.

It's where the attacking player overcarries for no ones fault but their own that a foul would be called.

Doesn't sound like a consistent application of the rules. If you give the advantage surely you have to let the 5 seconds play out in case you come out of being bottled up.

Never liked the advantage rule. I think it's trying to be all things to all men and ends up just being farcical

[Main Street]

And how is the fouled player to know he has an advantage? eyes in the back of his head?
It's a totally idiotic advantage rule when you can lose the advantage inside 4 seconds.

If a player does happen to notice that he has the advantage, can he stop play and say, 'thanks ref but I want the free kick not the so called advantage'?

No, he has to 'honestly' play on and make the ref call it that no advantage is being gained.

I think a ref would give the free in the case of getting bottled up, as it would be clear no advantage is being gained at the start of the bottling up.

It's where the attacking player overcarries for no ones fault but their own that a foul would be called.

Thanks,  are you saying if the ref plays advantage but subsequently the player gets caught in a swarm and holds onto the ball too long, the ref would generally call the play back for the advantage as you alluded to?

But that in the event of the player committing a technical foul on his own accord (too many steps), the ref will generally call the foul against the player?

[weareros]

And how is the fouled player to know he has an advantage? eyes in the back of his head?
It's a totally idiotic advantage rule when you can lose the advantage inside 4 seconds.

If a player does happen to notice that he has the advantage, can he stop play and say, 'thanks ref but I want the free kick not the so called advantage'?

No, he has to 'honestly' play on and make the ref call it that no advantage is being gained.

I think a ref would give the free in the case of getting bottled up, as it would be clear no advantage is being gained at the start of the bottling up.

It's where the attacking player overcarries for no ones fault but their own that a foul would be called.

Thanks,  are you saying if the ref plays advantage but subsequently the player gets caught in a swarm and holds onto the ball too long, the ref would generally call the play back for the advantage as you alluded to?

But that in the event of the player committing a technical foul on his own accord (too many steps), the ref will generally call the foul against the player?

Refs rarely penalise steps when advantage is given. Tommy Conroy was given an advantage in the 1st half yesterday, proceeded to take way too many steps. Gough stopped play and gave original free to Mayo, which they pointed.

[JoG2]

And how is the fouled player to know he has an advantage? eyes in the back of his head?
It's a totally idiotic advantage rule when you can lose the advantage inside 4 seconds.

If a player does happen to notice that he has the advantage, can he stop play and say, 'thanks ref but I want the free kick not the so called advantage'?

No, he has to 'honestly' play on and make the ref call it that no advantage is being gained.

I think a ref would give the free in the case of getting bottled up, as it would be clear no advantage is being gained at the start of the bottling up.

It's where the attacking player overcarries for no ones fault but their own that a foul would be called.

A simple rule made into a minefield by the powers that be. The addition to the rule in the official guide / rules (effective from March 2024), in the referee's handbook (which was obviously news to me yesterday, and I want state on record that I'm delighted to have this new rule add-on learnt to let rip at a future game) states:

Foul Subsequent to Advantage Award
If, during the advantage period, a foul is committed by a player of the team which was originally fouled then the advantage is cancelled and a free kick/puck awarded for the "second" foul.

The above is not stated in the Official Playing Rules.

5.44   
When an Aggressive Foul is committed, the Referee may allow the play to continue if the referee considers that this presents the potential of a goal-scoring opportunity or another advantage to the team offended by creating or capitalising on time and space. The Referee shall signal that advantage by raising an arm upright and shall allow the advantage to run by maintaining that arm in the upright position for up to five seconds afterthe foul or for less time if it becomes clear that no advantage has accrued. If the referee deems no advantage to have accrued, the Referee may subsequently award a free for the foul from where it occurred, except as provided under Exceptions (v) and (vi) of Rule 2.2

For clarity Rule 2.2 (v and vi)

(v)When play is restarted by throwing in the ball after a foul(s) within 13m ofthe sideline, the throw-in shall be given 13m from the sideline and directly infield from where the foul(s) occurred.
(vi) When play is restarted by throwing in the ball after a foul(s) between the endline and the 20m line, the throw-in shall be given on the 20m line opposite where the foul(s)        occurred, subject to the provisions stated in



On the rule itself, if a player (hypothetical scenario, the player is bursting into the big D, 20m out from goal) is fouled, the ref's hand goes up to signal 5 seconds advantage, the player breaks free and shoots from 15m out, dead centre, misses, the ref will call it back. 2 bites of the cherry if you will.
Now, the same player takes 6 steps trying evade another defender, maybe he's been knocked off balance during the first tackle, commits a technical foul, maybe charges into another player, and loses the advantage.
Before the advantage rule was brought in, the player would have just got the very scorable free. Now, he could get either 2 easy shots for a score or nothing. Once the hands goes up, he has 5 seconds to not foul or he loses the free. He can't shout to ref  'here, I'll take the free thanks'..

If, for example, Conor Loftus during the final play in yesterday's Connacht final had been initially fouled and Gough's hand was up giving Loftus his 5 seconds advantage when the 2 Galway players tackled him (you can't tackle a man's neck and face, but that's for another day), Loftus was deemed to have committed a technical foul ie over carried the ball and would therefore have lost his advantage. In the olden days, Loftus gets his free, batters it up the pitch, game over.

Advantage 101 by the GAA

[David McKeown]

Even this bit doesnt make sense

5.44   
When an Aggressive Foul is committed, the Referee may allow the play to continue if the referee considers that this presents the potential of a goal-scoring opportunity or another advantage to the team offended by creating or capitalising on time and space. The Referee shall signal that advantage by raising an arm upright and shall allow the advantage to run by maintaining that arm in the upright position for up to five seconds after the foul or for less time if it becomes clear that no advantage has accrued. If the referee deems no advantage to have accrued, the Referee may subsequently award a free for the foul from where it occurred, except as provided under Exceptions (v) and (vi) of Rule 2.2

The referee may allow the play to continue if there is a potential for an advantage in the next five seconds but can allow less if no advantage accrues in that lesser time.  What if no advantage accrues after say 3 seconds but one might still occur.  What does the ref do?  The tenses are wrong are they not?

I am even more confused now by the rule than I was when i didnt actually know what it was

[JoG2]

Even this bit doesnt make sense

5.44   
When an Aggressive Foul is committed, the Referee may allow the play to continue if the referee considers that this presents the potential of a goal-scoring opportunity or another advantage to the team offended by creating or capitalising on time and space. The Referee shall signal that advantage by raising an arm upright and shall allow the advantage to run by maintaining that arm in the upright position for up to five seconds after the foul or for less time if it becomes clear that no advantage has accrued. If the referee deems no advantage to have accrued, the Referee may subsequently award a free for the foul from where it occurred, except as provided under Exceptions (v) and (vi) of Rule 2.2

The referee may allow the play to continue if there is a potential for an advantage in the next five seconds but can allow less if no advantage accrues in that lesser time.  What if no advantage accrues after say 3 seconds but one might still occur.  What does the ref do?  The tenses are wrong are they not?

I am even more confused now by the rule than I was when i didnt actually know what it was